John Brand writes:
On page 36: 'These non-Jews seem to have taken up several ideas and behaviors recognizably Jewish, presumably adding these to the practice of other native customs.' Question: Has there been study or discussion of parallel beliefs/practices from Graeco-Roman philosophical texts that may have provided the basis for a koinonia Paul fostered in the churches he planted based on this tendency of non-Jews to incorporate Jewish ideas with their own ideas? For example, In Galatians 5 as Paul brings the implications of his argument to a point, he appears to be incorporating ideas already believed in the Graeco-Roman world. In verse 6 he says 'neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything but faith working through love' and then he proceeds into a discussion of the conflict between the desire of the flesh and the desire of the spirit that does not appear to have precedent in Jewish writings not influenced by Greek philosophy but is verbatim in its terms what is found in Greek philosophy: 'he who is a philosopher ... and is entirely pure at departing, is alone permitted to reach the gods. And this is the reason ... why the true votaries of philosophy abstain from fleshly lusts and endure and refuse to give themselves up to them ... because they dread the dishonor of evil deeds' (Phaedo.82). 'Faith' in verse 6 would, then, mean the faith of the uncircumcised before hearing Paul's gospel as well as the faith of the circumcised coming together in a new koinonia or 'new man.' It has been my observation that Paul's letters are clearer when the secular Roman or Greek texts that contain parallel ideas are read alongside the Jewish sacred texts. Any thoughts on this?
On page 36: 'These non-Jews seem to have taken up several ideas and behaviors recognizably Jewish, presumably adding these to the practice of other native customs.' Question: Has there been study or discussion of parallel beliefs/practices from Graeco-Roman philosophical texts that may have provided the basis for a koinonia Paul fostered in the churches he planted based on this tendency of non-Jews to incorporate Jewish ideas with their own ideas? For example, In Galatians 5 as Paul brings the implications of his argument to a point, he appears to be incorporating ideas already believed in the Graeco-Roman world. In verse 6 he says 'neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything but faith working through love' and then he proceeds into a discussion of the conflict between the desire of the flesh and the desire of the spirit that does not appear to have precedent in Jewish writings not influenced by Greek philosophy but is verbatim in its terms what is found in Greek philosophy: 'he who is a philosopher ... and is entirely pure at departing, is alone permitted to reach the gods. And this is the reason ... why the true votaries of philosophy abstain from fleshly lusts and endure and refuse to give themselves up to them ... because they dread the dishonor of evil deeds' (Phaedo.82). 'Faith' in verse 6 would, then, mean the faith of the uncircumcised before hearing Paul's gospel as well as the faith of the circumcised coming together in a new koinonia or 'new man.' It has been my observation that Paul's letters are clearer when the secular Roman or Greek texts that contain parallel ideas are read alongside the Jewish sacred texts. Any thoughts on this?
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